Churchill was the bigger appeaser, IMO. The whole "formal" reason Britain declared war in 1939 was to defend Poland, and yet in 1944-45 Churchill sold out Poland and much of eastern Europe to another dictator, Stalin. In 1938 at Munich, in the name of buying time and avoiding war, Chamberlain thought it prudent to sell out 15 million Czechoslovakians in a territory of about 140,800 km2. In Feb 1945 at Yalta, for the much of the same reasons, Churchill thought it prudent to sell out 45 million Poles, Romanians, Bulgarians, Hungarians and others covering 1.3 million km2 to fifty years of slavery and servitude.
Furthermore, as Chancellor of the Exchequer from 1924 to 1929, Churchill made significant cuts to defense spending, including reductions in the Royal Navy's budget, military aircraft development, and overall military personnel and resources. And yet Chamberlain, whose government led Britain's rearmament, is the great appeaser and Churchill the master victor? I call sus on this.