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Just so we are clear....fighters are indispensable......
To determine whether germany held air superiority over europe we first of all need to understand what the various states of air control are
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Usually determining the state of control of the air is done on a theatre by thatre basis. For World War II there is some disagreement about what constituted a theatre, but in my opinion for the ETO generally, we can probably define the TOs as follws
1) Western Europe: France, Low Countries British Isles
2) Central Europe: germany, Poland, Hungary, Czechoslovakia, Denmark, Austria
3) Balkans Southern Europe: Italy (except Sicily), Greece (except Crete), Spain, Portugal, Turkey, Yugoslavia
4) Eastern Front: Romania, USSR
5) Northern Europe
6) North africa and the middle east
There may be some debate about what constitutes a theatre, and im happy to listen to other suggestions
If a nation commits innsufficient forces to make a difference, or no forces, or its forces are ineffective, it cannot be said to hold any level of control of the skies
now, applying the theory to german control of the air what deductions can we make. specifically what is the situation viz western Europe it cannot be established that the germans held air superiority over the region, because they could not undertake all manner of operations with much prospect of success. That had been disputed in the BoB and eventually lost.
They did enjoy elements of air parity but only to a limited extent. they could undertake air denial operations to a limited extent but with the forces available, would not have been able to mount effective attacks against enemy (ie allied) ground targets, either of a tactical or strategic nature). So, by defintion they were not exercising air superiority. Neither were they exercising local air superiority. they had some elements of air parity, which are sometimes referred to as air denial,. unofficially. Auir denial means the ability apply to a limited extent some ability to inflict losses so as to deny a limited area of airspace to some enemy operations
However the degree of that air denial in western europe is limited, as Glider points out. The losses to the RAF in terms of daylight operations were tolerable to low, and as time progressed the LW were less and less able to limit the range of missions that the RAF could undertake over occupied western euriope. all kinds of missions were undertaken by the RAF in western Europe....including transport, fighter bomber, bomber, naval interdiction naval strike. Less and less were the germans able to impede these missions, by day or night. In some parts of Western Europe, namely over the British Isles, thye Allies had achieved Air supremacy. you cannot have an opponent exercising air supremacy over critical parts of a front where you yourself are claimimg air superiority. the two terms are anthema to each other, when control to that level is being exercised by opposing forces. It might be possible to separate Britain from the rest of western Europe, but this would seem very arbitrary given that the force projections in Britain could affect operations in the rest of the geographical unit so dramatically
Over Central Europe it was a different story. The concentration of fighters was sufficient to make losses prohibitive, forcing the British to divert some of their operations to night bombing. even here, however the control of the air was not complete...german fighters were unable to completely deny all daylight operations, as the activities of the Mosquito intruders and the PRU forces clearly demonstrate. Even more conventional heavy bombers were able to operate in daylight....not sure, but werent the dambuster operations carried out in daylight?
Elsewhere, with the exception of the eastern front, and perhaps the southern front, Axis control was tenuous at best. In those areas one could, at best argure they enjoyed either local superiority or air parity, depending on how you want to view the situation. On the eastern front, for example, I would tend to classify Axis control of the skies as local superiority.
They could take and dominate a section of the front, right through until 1943, but overall, had lost total air superiority by December 1941. For a time thereafter they maintained air parity, before losing that as well. At Kursk and over the Kuban in 1943, they were challenged, and ultimately lost even the ability to gain local air superiority. Thereafter German fighters could simply not inflict enough casualties to matter. whilst the russians also found it difficult with their skillsets and equipment to wrest complete control of the air, they were able to achieve air parity and local air superiority as required. Ther were no instances of Soviet air offensives being stopped after Kursk, and it is simply propaganda to claim that Sturmovik losses were excessively heavy. they were heavy, but not excessively so, and more to the point required the expenditure of resources for the germans intrying to stop them that they simply could not afford. german fighters and flak (which accounted for about 35% of Soviet losses) managed to shoot down 46000 Soviet aircraft during the war, whilst losing approiximately 35000 of all types of their own. Moreover, despite all that effort and loss, they failed to make any appreciable effect on the Soviet efficiency and ability to complete ground support missions or take military objectives.
Once again we are reduced to asking ourselves where is the clear strategic advantage being won solely by fighters. with a few notable exceptions, they werent. Fighters, like rifles and bread were essential to force projection, bu seldom were decisive in their own right
Thanks. Just so we are clear....fighters are indispensable, so in that sense I have to concede that they have strategic importance. But thats not the point(s) that I made, or responded to. In summary, if you will grant me this indulgence I think the points (some still in contention are
1) Fighters, whilst essential, generally dont or cant achieve a significant strategic advantage, except in exceptional circumstances, such as when the enemy does not have fighters, or fighters that are inneffective. Whilst fighters can tip the balance of losses for an attacker, most of their losses are inherent 9things like landing accidents, weather effects, flak, airframe fatigue and the like. Of course fighters inflict losses, but they are not the major determinat of losses, That shocks and alarms many peoiple. Moreover, except in exeptional circumstances, the side using fighters do not generally suffer a lower attrition rate. case in point, look at the Eastern Front. Despite being on the strategic defensive and committing at least 30% of their available fighters, with a far higher skills base, overall, there is not much difference in the loss rates of the Soviets or the LW. You cannot shoot down a lot of enemies, usually, without suffering a lot of losses yourself. It just doesnt work that way
Moreover, and finally producing lots of fighters when you are economically weaker might be forced on you, but of itself is not a winner. Germany was never going to win her defensive battle in 1944 by building nothing but fighters. her losses were always going to aat least equal those of the allies, as it turned out they exceeded those of the Americans in particular.....a fantastic rap for the P-51s combatting the LW, because that is something that should not have happened
2) Germany did not hold air superiority over any front from late 1941 on. On secondary fronts they might, or on maion fronts they might achieve local superiorities. Their air force remained potent, but applying the definition of air superiority they simply did not have it, because they could not undetake all manner of missions to all parts of each front. Whilst the allies and the Soviets had difficulty in doing that (as reflected in the losses they suffered), they could at least undertake such missions over a greater proportion of each front. Thats the issue so many people miss about the battles over France in 1941.....it was about being able to do things despite the wishes and efforts of the enemy. Without that vital first step, nothing else in the air was possible. The RAF could do it, the LW could not, its about as simple as that......it was slightly different and slightly later in the East, but a description of what had occurred by 1943 is perhaps that the russians could complete thei8r primary mission (ground support) at tolerable losses and achi8eve their intention (an advance on the ground), whereas the LW could neither significantly affect the ground battle, nor could it stop the Soviets from doing their thing....
3) As a generalization (a dangerous thing perhaps) fighters dont reduce losses strategically for a friendly bomber force, unless the escorting fighters massively outnumber those of the intercepting CAP. They do however, increase the losses of an enemy bomber force, unless that bomber force is massively escorted (another way of saying what I said in the first place) . Both sides found this to be the case during the war. perhaps also if the training levels or equipment quality is madssively different a stratyegically significant reault is possible.
The trouble Tomo is in the detail of your reply. Defining a region is difficult i agree, but trying to exclude britain from western europe is more arbitrary than my approach. Aircraft based in England, could, and did, affect what was happening in france and flanders, and vice versa. My opinion in defining what is a region, is to think about the main bases of operations, and the geogrphical extent that they could affect surrounding areas. From a British perspective, despite numerical advantages, they could not, for example (at least until very late) affect directly what was happening in Poland, for example. But trying to define Belgium as a separate area, when clearly the control of its skies depended on activities of surrounding areas (including those in England) is too arbitrary, and serves no purpose.
Belgium and Poland should be looked as the examples of a 'region'. The war theare is a term describing a grater geographical area, 'containing' more regions.
Now, you claim that Germany controlled the skies over the Channel and the french coast more often than they didnt. If that were true, then the germans held air superiority, trouble is, its just not true.
Hence we disagree.
You also claim that casualties over france for the RAF were prohibitive.
Will you be so kind to remind me aboth where I've said that?
If the germans controlled the skies over the channel and the french coast, why didnt they undertake bomber and other non-fighter operations.
1. Having a control of the airspace, and having bombers using that airspace is not the asme thing - one thing requires fighters, other require bombers.
2. Whom should they bomb on the French coast?
allied shipping losses in the channel, for example, shrank from a respectable total of about 700000 tone in 1940, to about 50000 tons in 1942. and this was not a case of huge numbers.
LW bomber units were dispatched at the Eastern front, so requiring from LW to sink more ships in the Channel seems just a tad unrealistic.
There were relatively few antishipping units in the Lw in 1940, and relatively few in 1942....no real change in numbers.
You will recall that majority of shipping losses in 1940 were caused by ordinary bomber units, not the anit-shipping ones?
.units had been moved to other, less demanding fronts by 1942, but if the Germans had control of the skies over the channel it seems inconceivable that they would not try and exploit that advantage at some point. The anti-shipping units that they did possess in the region (KG 40) were actually forced to move away from their operational areas because of RAF activity, and never undertook operations close to the French coast, or the Channel. if the germans controlled these skies, as you claim, why didnt they? why were they forced to make long over watrer flights to areas wher allied fighters could not reach?
With Op Barbarossa, 80% (give or take) of LW units are relocated to the support of the Operation. Asking from remaining units to conduct major operations in the face of majority of RAF forces is, again, unrealistic, not to say something that could got me warned, or worse.
Moreover, the germans were unable to protect their battlesquadron (Scharnhorst and Gneisenau, later Prinz Eugen) from RAF day or night airborne attack. if they controlled the skies over the Channel and the french coast "most of the time", why did they allow thjis to happen, to the eventiual point that these assets too had to be removed from the To 9with the eventual permanent diablement of one of the BCs) .
If that was not the case, how come RAF failed to sink the ships, both while anchored during the Dash?
Looking at the issue in reverse, Allied losses on Axis shipping in the coastal waters off france steadily rose. There was never a lot of it, but it certainly rose as the war progressed. That further tends to disprove your claim that the Germans controlled the airspace. They had the ability to inflict some losses using their fighters, and that was about it. that is not a measure of air superiority. its a measure of air denial
1. I take it that sentence "Allied losses on Axis shipping" means "Axis shipping losses, made by Allies"?
2. Comparison of what LW was acieving vs. what RAF was achieving ove Channell would be most welcommed, with god data, of course.
But even here, your claims that British daylight raids over occupied western euriope were being decimated aere just not supported by the facts. Sure, the fighter losses were heavy, but thats because FC, to get the LW to rise up and fight, had to deliberately place themselves at tactical disadvantages.....put up bait so the Germans would come out and fight. galland himself in his book admits to this, and this goes a long way to explaining why FC (of which only a portion was ever employed in cross channel operations) was so roughly handled September to December '41.
The operations of the bomber groups making these daylight intrusions, principally Coastal command and 2 Gp, did not in fact suffer heavy losses. Some of this admittedly is because they didnt commit many bombers, but the loss to sotie rate for 2 Gp was lower than BC generally (which was mostly operating at night at this time).
Bombers went for night bombing - BC deeds support my claim. The bolded part supports my claim re. FC.
Saying that the RAF had a great numerical advantage is also not quite looking at the situation properly. there were quite a number of occasions when raids and operations over France did see the RAF putting more aircraft into the operation than the LW, but it is simply untrue that the entire RAF was pitted against just two JGs. As previously alluded to, the RAF, to get the LW to come up, had to place itself deliberately at disadvantage to get them to even come up. the LW only would fly if the situation was tactically favourable to them.
Until mid 1942 not a single Spitfire was operating away from GB, while wast majority of LW fighters was either in Eastern , or Med front. RAF has way more bombers than LW, in area between Rhine and Ireland. What should be the 'proper way into looking at situation'?
As for "to place itself deliberately at disadvantage to get them to even come up", was RAF expecting that LW commanders will suddenly believe that only 2-3 fighter wings are against them, in 1941-42, as if they have no radars? My take is that "placing deliberately at disadvantage..." stuff is either pie in the sky, or some kind of apology for the 'rough handling from Sept-Dec 1941'.
But in any event, we are back at this point of equating losses to control of the air, which is fundamentally wrong.
Accusing me of something I didn't say?
This is not the sole determinant of air superiority. The losses had to be worse than tolerable in order for it to be said that the RAF was denied access to those skies. Clearly they were not intolerable losses....the RAF kept coming back, suffering losses in daylight operations over france of around 2% (whilst their night bombers generally were suffering attrition rates of around 5%). In addition to inflicting prohibitive losses on the RAF (which they clearly failed to do) the germans would also have needed to be able to fly any and all manner of missions in that TO. Something they also could not do.
It would by wrong to say that RAF was doing in the air, between Channel and Germany, whatever it pleased. RAF was contesting LW, paying a price, waging the war. With it's bomber force away, along with the majority of fighers, there is no point to claim LW bombers were forbidden to conduct their operations. If RAF was really so dominant beyond Channel, BC's bombers would've been striking during day - but that was not the case.
Again, air superiority has not much to do with losses. Except if those losses cause a curtailment of operations. The germans were forced to curtail their operations, I find no evidence of the RAF being forced to curtail their operations over France in 1941. Once again, all i can do is suggest you go back to the theory and work out what the term air superiority actually means.
Once again, I'll suggest to you that it's time to step down from the pedestal and take into account that LW was not present at the West in 1941 in numbers as it was in 1940.
Re the question of Air Superiority there is no question that the RAF No 2 Group and at times elements of Bomber Command could and did operate at will over Europe. The examples I gave were proof of that, if you want to pick any other day of the year I will do a similar exercise, I don't think that I can be fairer than that. Some were pin pricks others significant. The 94 aircraft Lancaster raid (unescorted) 300 miles behind the front line is clear evidence of the weakness of the German defences.
What would have happened had this been repeated we will never know. My guess is that the Luftwaffe would have reacted and soon losses would have climbed signficantly. But it doesn't alter the fact that the German forces in place at the time, were not strong enough in numbers or organisation. This raid was unexpected, well planned and lets be honest, the RAF got away with it.
This brings us to the Channel Dash. It was also well planned, totally unexpected and this time the Germans didn't get away with it. Both Battle Cruisers were seriously damaged. Not by bombs or torpedos dropped by Torpedo / Level / Dive bombers, but by mines dropped by the RAF. In other words the Luftwaffe had the strength to protect the Ships directly but didn't have the strength to keep the passage clear. Its also worth remembering why the Dash took place in the first place. It was because the ships were being attacked on a regular basis and taking damage in the French ports. Again the Luftwaffe didn't have the power to stop the attacks taking place, even in their own ports sometimes against unescorted bombers which were only armed with LMGs. RAF losses were often high, what else would you expect considering the strength of the defences but they still got through.
There is a world of difference difference between a raid slipping through during a battle such as the BOB when the defences are at the point of being swamped by other attacks. Compared with a good sized raid getting through when there are no other actions in progress. The infrastructure at least was missing to cope with such a raid, one that would have taken approx 1 1/2 hours to reach safety after dropping their payload (allowing for a 200mph cruise speed). The German forces had plenty of warning and cannot claim to control the air, plus of course the other raids that took place if raids like that could get through.Yes complete true, but is this suffice to say air superiority? Because sometime formation was lucky and got away with it? This happened through war on all sides, even 1945 there were German aircraft over Britain and not caught.. but it would be foolish to say they had air superiority over Britain, in 1945, because some of their raid slipped through the defense net.. nor it is fair to conclude: defense net was weak. No system is perfect.
Towards the end of the BOB a number of German raids were turned back before reaching their targets, the RAF controlled the air over the UK.If I use an analouge, I find it for example strange that people say RAF had air superiority over Britain, because it met German bomber raids, most of time, caused losses - but far from always. In event the losses did not stop or prohibit a single raid, or not very too many. This is is similiar case as in 1941 over France IMHO, but for two similiar cases, how can one draw different conclusions? If being capable of causing senstive loss over Britain in 1940 means air superiority for the RAF, surely being capable of causing senstive loss over France in 1941 means air superiority for the LW..
Easy. The Germans knew what route the Vessels were going to go and steps should have been taken to patrol those routes. They didn't and the Battle Cruisers were badly damaged by weapons dropped by the RAF. The Luftwaffe didn't have the strength to protect the vessels.I do not understand - how were an air force supposed to fight mines? No air force was capable doing this 100% perfection. I think you draw too big conclusions from small facts..
That I do agree with but I would appreciate your views on the lack of opposition to the No 2 Group raids and why the vast majority of the losses were to AA fire, if the Luftwaffe were in control of the air. Also your views on the lack of PR missions which penetrated over the UK when the RAF ones operated with much success over Europe and Germany, by day and night.But it is enjoyable interesting discussion!
Lots to disagree on I can see. a few minor points. The shipping losses in the channel and around the british isles were achieved, in the main by FKX units, which had ben formed prewar. Very few successes were scored by units not trained in naval strike operations. There were a few units in FKII that had received similar training, and that was about it. In 1942, when Luftlotte IV formed a specialist anti shipping unit (I think it was called Flieger fuhrer Meer.... of about three squadrons) for operations designed to blockade Sevastopol, it took nearly three months to get these units up to standard.
Air units untrained in anti shipping operations were not that successful.
In addition to the units of FKX, and some units of FKII, there were the units of KG40 that had operated from early 1940. these units too participated in sinking shipping around the british isles.
After the bulk of the Luftwaffe transferred to the east (it wasnt 80%......around 2900 of the Luftwaffes overall strength of 4200 frontline forces were transferred, the rest stayed in the west and on the southern fron to combat the British), they left behind FKX which transferred all but two Gerschwaders to the South where they nearly sank the Illustrious. The other two Geschwaders remained in western Europe for the very purpose wea re talking about....anti-shipping operations. They found they could not operate, because the germans could not provide sufficient protection for them. First, they moved about 100 miles to the south away from RAF interfernce, then they were shipped out of the theatre altogether.....to Norway where they were attached to LFV.
The other bomber unit unit that i know of left in France was KG40. this unit in the Summer of 1940 had started operations in the coastal waters around the british isles. That was fine whilst the germans held air superiority , but once it was lost air superiority over the channel, these units were soon forced to refocus their efforts away from the coast.
You keep saying that BC was forced to operate at night, and this was due to the efforts of the German fighters. That was true over germany, and for BC, but the majority of effort over france was not undertaken at night, and not by BC. you do understand that dont you. it was undertaken by 2 group, which eventually became 2TAF, and Coastal command. And these formation did not suffere catastrophic losses. they in fact suffered lower loss rates than BC, which was operating at night (sometimes over france, but also and mostly over Germany). But then you say that you didnt say that, so i guess the raf was not suffering lprohibitive losses over western Europe (which does not in this case include germany).
As for Until mid 1942 not a single Spitfire was operating away from GB, while wast majority of LW fighters was either in Eastern , or Med front. RAF has way more bombers than LW, in area between Rhine and Ireland. What should be the 'proper way into looking at situation'?"to place itself deliberately at disadvantage to get them to even come up", was RAF expecting that LW commanders will suddenly believe that only 2-3 fighter wings are against them, in 1941-42, as if they have no radars? My take is that "placing deliberately at disadvantage..." stuff is either pie in the sky, or some kind of apology for the 'rough handling from Sept-Dec 1941'.
its no apology. It was the price needed to be paid in order to produce the situation and control that which the British were seeking. And they achieved it, something dismissed and misunderstood to an alarming degree. Read Gallands book where he says quite a bit about this , but most relevantly "their (the JGs) element was to attack, to track, to hunt and to destroy the enemy. Only in this way can the eager and skilful fighter pilot display his ability to the full. Tie him to a narrow and confined task rob him of his intiative and you take away from him the best and most valuable qualities he posseses; aggressive spirit, joy of action and the passion of the hunter'. I understand that in postwar interviews galland confirmed that all these were denied the german forces on the western front after June. partly as you say because of the trasnfer of forces, but conjointly because of the activities of the RAF.
John Foreman, in his book "1941 Part 2 - The Blitz to the Non-Stop Offensive", says in his conclusion "(by the end of 1941) the air war had come full circle ...the british forces were firmly on the offensive having fought hard and won air superiority over western europe, including the channel, the british Isles and the French Coast......their opponents were now fighting a totally defensive war in the west, and were never to regain the initiaitive, and never able to challenge allied air superiority." evidently Foreman doesnt agree with you either.
As for spitfires not being deployed outside of Europe, why would they. they were not needed outside of Europe, and would have represented an unnecceary drain on supply. Spitfires were a dedicated , specialized fighter not thought suited at that time to any multi role functions like the hurricane, which for 1941, excelled at it. Moreover there were doubts at the time of the spitfires ability to operate from rough strips, and take off from carriers....concerns not so acutely held for the more docile Hurricanes.
There is no evidence of excessive losses in the med for the hurricane equipped formations.
I have the details of losses in shipping and will dig them out in a day or so