The trouble Tomo is in the detail of your reply. Defining a region is difficult i agree, but trying to exclude britain from western europe is more arbitrary than my approach. Aircraft based in England, could, and did, affect what was happening in france and flanders, and vice versa. My opinion in defining what is a region, is to think about the main bases of operations, and the geogrphical extent that they could affect surrounding areas. From a British perspective, despite numerical advantages, they could not, for example (at least until very late) affect directly what was happening in Poland, for example. But trying to define Belgium as a separate area, when clearly the control of its skies depended on activities of surrounding areas (including those in England) is too arbitrary, and serves no purpose.
Belgium and Poland should be looked as the examples of a 'region'. The war theare is a term describing a grater geographical area, 'containing' more regions.
Now, you claim that Germany controlled the skies over the Channel and the french coast more often than they didnt. If that were true, then the germans held air superiority, trouble is, its just not true.
Hence we disagree.
You also claim that casualties over france for the RAF were prohibitive.
Will you be so kind to remind me aboth where I've said that?
If the germans controlled the skies over the channel and the french coast, why didnt they undertake bomber and other non-fighter operations.
1. Having a control of the airspace, and having bombers using that airspace is not the asme thing - one thing requires fighters, other require bombers.
2. Whom should they bomb on the French coast?
allied shipping losses in the channel, for example, shrank from a respectable total of about 700000 tone in 1940, to about 50000 tons in 1942. and this was not a case of huge numbers.
LW bomber units were dispatched at the Eastern front, so requiring from LW to sink more ships in the Channel seems just a tad unrealistic.
There were relatively few antishipping units in the Lw in 1940, and relatively few in 1942....no real change in numbers.
You will recall that majority of shipping losses in 1940 were caused by ordinary bomber units, not the anit-shipping ones?
units had been moved to other, less demanding fronts by 1942, but if the Germans had control of the skies over the channel it seems inconceivable that they would not try and exploit that advantage at some point. The anti-shipping units that they did possess in the region (KG 40) were actually forced to move away from their operational areas because of RAF activity, and never undertook operations close to the French coast, or the Channel. if the germans controlled these skies, as you claim, why didnt they? why were they forced to make long over watrer flights to areas wher allied fighters could not reach?
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With Op Barbarossa, 80% (give or take) of LW units are relocated to the support of the Operation. Asking from remaining units to conduct major operations in the face of majority of RAF forces is, again, unrealistic, not to say something that could got me warned, or worse.
Moreover, the germans were unable to protect their battlesquadron (Scharnhorst and Gneisenau, later Prinz Eugen) from RAF day or night airborne attack. if they controlled the skies over the Channel and the french coast "most of the time", why did they allow thjis to happen, to the eventiual point that these assets too had to be removed from the To 9with the eventual permanent diablement of one of the BCs) .
If that was not the case, how come RAF failed to sink the ships, both while anchored during the Dash?
Looking at the issue in reverse, Allied losses on Axis shipping in the coastal waters off france steadily rose. There was never a lot of it, but it certainly rose as the war progressed. That further tends to disprove your claim that the Germans controlled the airspace. They had the ability to inflict some losses using their fighters, and that was about it. that is not a measure of air superiority. its a measure of air denial
1. I take it that sentence "Allied losses on Axis shipping" means "Axis shipping losses, made by Allies"?
2. Comparison of what LW was acieving vs. what RAF was achieving ove Channell would be most welcommed, with god data, of course.
But even here, your claims that British daylight raids over occupied western euriope were being decimated aere just not supported by the facts. Sure, the fighter losses were heavy, but thats because FC, to get the LW to rise up and fight, had to deliberately place themselves at tactical disadvantages.....put up bait so the Germans would come out and fight. galland himself in his book admits to this, and this goes a long way to explaining why FC (of which only a portion was ever employed in cross channel operations) was so roughly handled September to December '41.
The operations of the bomber groups making these daylight intrusions, principally Coastal command and 2 Gp, did not in fact suffer heavy losses. Some of this admittedly is because they didnt commit many bombers, but the loss to sotie rate for 2 Gp was lower than BC generally (which was mostly operating at night at this time).
Bombers went for night bombing - BC deeds support my claim. The bolded part supports my claim re. FC.
Saying that the RAF had a great numerical advantage is also not quite looking at the situation properly. there were quite a number of occasions when raids and operations over France did see the RAF putting more aircraft into the operation than the LW, but it is simply untrue that the entire RAF was pitted against just two JGs. As previously alluded to, the RAF, to get the LW to come up, had to place itself deliberately at disadvantage to get them to even come up. the LW only would fly if the situation was tactically favourable to them.
Until mid 1942 not a single Spitfire was operating away from GB, while wast majority of LW fighters was either in Eastern , or Med front. RAF has way more bombers than LW, in area between Rhine and Ireland. What should be the 'proper way into looking at situation'?
As for "to place itself deliberately at disadvantage to get them to even come up", was RAF expecting that LW commanders will suddenly believe that only 2-3 fighter wings are against them, in 1941-42, as if they have no radars? My take is that "placing deliberately at disadvantage..." stuff is either pie in the sky, or some kind of apology for the 'rough handling from Sept-Dec 1941'.
But in any event, we are back at this point of equating losses to control of the air, which is fundamentally wrong.
Accusing me of something I didn't say?
This is not the sole determinant of air superiority. The losses had to be worse than tolerable in order for it to be said that the RAF was denied access to those skies. Clearly they were not intolerable losses....the RAF kept coming back, suffering losses in daylight operations over france of around 2% (whilst their night bombers generally were suffering attrition rates of around 5%). In addition to inflicting prohibitive losses on the RAF (which they clearly failed to do) the germans would also have needed to be able to fly any and all manner of missions in that TO. Something they also could not do.
It would by wrong to say that RAF was doing in the air, between Channel and Germany, whatever it pleased. RAF was contesting LW, paying a price, waging the war. With it's bomber force away, along with the majority of fighers, there is no point to claim LW bombers were forbidden to conduct their operations. If RAF was really so dominant beyond Channel, BC's bombers would've been striking during day - but that was not the case.
Again, air superiority has not much to do with losses. Except if those losses cause a curtailment of operations. The germans were forced to curtail their operations, I find no evidence of the RAF being forced to curtail their operations over France in 1941. Once again, all i can do is suggest you go back to the theory and work out what the term air superiority actually means.
Once again, I'll suggest to you that it's time to step down from the pedestal and take into account that LW was not present at the West in 1941 in numbers as it was in 1940.