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It seems that up to the end of 1942, the Luftwaffe had contested control, or at least had the upper hand in the skies over Europe. Both the FW190 and the Bf109 F and early G models held air superiority. When did the Luftwaffe started loosing the war in the skies over Europe? Why?
It seems that up to the end of 1942, the Luftwaffe had contested control, or at least had the upper hand in the skies over Europe. Both the FW190 and the Bf109 F and early G models held air superiority. When did the Luftwaffe started loosing the war in the skies over Europe? Why?
That's a part of WW2 history I have to review. I know Jg53 had a hard time at it over Malta and I know some of the history regarding Malta's strategic importance in relation to North Africa's campaign (supply and blockade) but I've never dived into the air war over Malta.The UK is part of Europe the LW did not gain control over UK skies, or the sky over Malta.
An interesting read. Malta is smaller than the Isle of Wight and Isle of Man. It was initially defended by a few Gloster Gladiators by August 1942 it had 163 Spitfires (120 serviceable) which is about 25% of what Dowding/Park had to defend all the UK at the fall of France 1940. Italy and Germany just had to take Malta or eventually pay the price, they invaded North Africa and Russia instead.That's a part of WW2 history I have to review. I know Jg53 had a hard time at it over Malta and I know some of the history regarding Malta's strategic importance in relation to North Africa's campaign (supply and blockade) but I've never dived into the air war over Malta.
On the Eastern Front, a/c were moved to the "hot spots" leaving the area they came from virtually undefended.I won't address the when, but the why.
IMO the Luftwaffe did not have the resources, experience manpower , or enough aircraft to cover all the fronts they were responsible for.
They had North Africa, and the Eastern front, in addition to Europe to cover.
They couldn't do it all.
Also the Allies were able to cycle experienced pilots to training squadrons. That had to help compensate for lesser aircraft the Allies earlier on, imho.My impression was that both Allies and Germans fielded comparable fighter aircraft, at different times one side may have held a slight technonological edge, but never enough to be in itself decisive, that is compensating for difference in pilot skills.
Or numbers. I got the idea that when the US war machine got into gear, it started mass-producing fighter aircraft in numbers that the Luftwaffe simply could not compete with. attempting to only leading to a death spiral of loosing experienced pilots while the US training centers provided enough competent pilots to keep up.
Also the Allies were able to cycle experienced pilots to training squadrons. That had to help compensate for lesser aircraft the Allies earlier on, imho.
The Brits had their own training plan, the BCATP, which partially shut down in the last year because there was so many air crew.My impression was that both Allies and Germans fielded comparable fighter aircraft, at different times one side may have held a slight technonological edge, but never enough to be in itself decisive, that is compensating for difference in pilot skills.
Or numbers. I got the idea that when the US war machine got into gear, it started mass-producing fighter aircraft in numbers that the Luftwaffe simply could not compete with. attempting to only leading to a death spiral of loosing experienced pilots while the US training centers provided enough competent pilots to keep up.
The loss of air supremacy over Europe is too broad. The LW maintained parity over Kanal countries against RAF and AAF until late 1943/early 1944 when the P-51B and new P-38J extended the tactical footprint deep into Germany - and the array of twin engine fighters used effectively against AAF daylight raids were completely neutralized.
The UK is part of Europe
The Luftwaffe never had air supremacy to be sure, the RAF was always up for a fight. However, it might have qualified for localized air superiority over south-east England, as they were strong enough to push their attacks through, albeit with casualties. I guess it depends on how mere superiority is defined.A Mister Johnson from Number Ten would like a word...
The Germans never had air superiority over Great Britain at any time, contrary to popular belief...
However, it might have qualified for localized air superiority over south-east England, as they were strong enough to push their attacks through, albeit with casualties.