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Id very much like to hear peoples opinions on the quantitative effects airpower might have on a land battle. We tend to know that airpower was usualy critical, but its hard to be precise.
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So, with an air force in 1943, 1/8 as capable in terms of the amount of work it could undertake, and an unknown loss of efficiency compared to the 1944 air forces. That isnt even considering any other qualitative changes that might be at work. With 1/8 the amount of work potential, are we looking at a German army with the ability to 8x as efficient? I think not that much, but certainly far more efficient than the 1944 army that faced the allies
Wonder why the RAF and USAF of, say, mid 1943, will represent just 1/8th of capability, when compared with mid 1944?
I would also bet that the Luftwaffe's were a lot lower in 1944 than 1943, I have those figures but not time to look them up.
Bingo! You can say that againThese things make a huge difference to the effectiveness of any fighting force.
Steve explained this pretty well , but we aren't even considering other improvements in efficiency. I think between June 1943 and June 1944, the Allies added to their knowledge of what buttons to push, what to go after , where, and with what. its just not possible to be precise, but its something to at least think about.
So, its pretty clear that between 1943 and 1944 the allies derived massive increases in work potential for their air forces. by "work potential' I mean, "things they could do."
The question is, with the (reduced) level of "work potential" available in June 1943 versus the available response the LW could mount at that time, could a less experienced, less capable, smaller allied ground force have any hope of success. I don't think that it did, but Im willing to at least listen to the counter argument.
Perhaps the 1943 sorties per aircraft are low compared to 1944 because the amount of work required was not the same in June of 1943 as in June of 1944.
Eagledad