Flirting with the idea? The document you quoted expressly rules it out.
Yes, they ruled out for the time being. Chamberlain was still PM and common sense mostly prevailed over Churchill's silly ideas. The UK did not have a bomber force to match the Germans, the French were even hopeless in that regard. Apparantly Chamberlain was not very fond if the idea either, the French were even less fond of the idea, validly pointing out that while the British chaps conduct a leisurely terror bombing campaign because Churchill considered it such a grand idea, it will be their neck on which German bombers will breath down on when they come back to retaliate for all that. The Belgians were reluctant too, probably for the same reason.
In the end, Churchill pushed it through anyway when he became PM, but much like many of his other silly master plans, this one did not work out either. The Germans simply did not took the bait, and instead of mindlessly running to bomb the hell out of London in retaliation, they obliterated the French and British ground troops. Then used the PoWs to clear up the rubble.
How is this the government flirting with retaliation?
It is not, it the First Sea Lord (Churchill) flirting with winning the war via terror bombing. Chamberlain evidently did not, not only for practical (= Germans would kick arses if we tried to pull that stunt off) but also for moral reasons. Post-war propaganda and apologists aside, nobody at the time considered the Luftwaffe's operation over Poland anything like terrorful, neither the British neither the French; Chamberlain was however quite aware what was Churchill asking for, no matter how he tried to pack it, it still stinked.
The Prime Minister said that the adoption of this action might be necessary, and, if so, he would not shrink from it. Nevertheless, he-would be reluctant that this country should lay itself open to the accusation of being the first country to adopt action of this kind. He did not think that what had happend in Poland was altogether comparable to the action which was proposed in the Ruhr, at any rate as regards the
effect which it would have on world opinion. His conclusion was that the matter would have to be determined by judgment of the whole position when the time came.
Presented with a report by a separate committee they decided to adhere to existing policy, not to be the first to bomb.
Unless, of course, things turn sour on the military front, in which case they shall be terror bombing. Things did turn sour in May 1940.
Or if the Germans invade Belgium, their close military ally, they would be terror bombing again. The Germans could still invade Luxemburg, or the Netherlands, that one did not count for some reason. Still, it is ironic that in the end they justified it with the bombing of a Dutch town, isn't it?
The fact remains that the Germans bombed Poland with no provocation. They bombed Norway with no provocation. They bombed Belgium and the Netherlands with no provocation. At least France was at war with Germany before the bombers took off, but again the German air attacks preceded any French air attacks on Germany.
I think the Germans bombing Poland had something to do with being a war and such (plus the less then optimal history/relations of the two nations in the last 20 years)?
The bombing of Norway (really? they bombed Norway?) must have to do with another of Churchill little plans to invade Norway, Operation Wilfred, formulated in September 1939 and executed in April 1940, which prompted to Germans who have found out to (and kick the French British the hell out of there) intervene. They were perfectly fine with a neutral Norway through which swedish ore could flow to Germany. The British weren't.
Britain only began bombing Germany after the Luftwaffe had killed tens of thousands in Poland, Norway, France, Belgium and the Netherlands.
True. But decided to to do it regardless well before the Luftwaffe supposedly killed 'tens of thousends' in Poland, Norway, France, Belgium and the Netherlands.
How then could the Luftwaffe "retaliate" against Britain?
In fact, when the war cabinet authorised attacks on Germany east of the Rhine, they stressed the military nature of the objectives:
To authorise the Chief of the Air Staff to order Bomber Command to carry out attacks on suitable military objectives, (including marshalling yards and oil refineries) in the Ruhr as well as elsewhere in Germany; and that these attacks should begin that night with approximately 100 heavy bombers.
"Military" was underlined in the original text...
... knowing full well that the Ruhr 'contained moreover, a population which might be expected to crack under extensive air attack and that such attacks would involve a heavy casualty roll among civilians, including women and children.'
But of course it was 'military targets'. Justification for the unrestricted attacks was also discussed in detail.
THE CHIEF OF THE AIR STAFF said that it should not be imagined that the Chiefs of Staff were at all anxious to let loose unrestricted air warfare, or, indeed, at present to start a train of circumstances which was likely to lead to heavy retaliation on our own and the French aircraft industry. They were only recommending the attack on the Ruhr in the particular circumstances of a German invasion of Belgium., Apart from the justification which such a violation of neutrality would give, they felt that the moment when the German Armies were starting their advance was psychologically and militarily the right one. As regards the legality of the operation, there were no agreed rules on the subject. The Hague draft Rules had received a certain measure of acceptance. In these draft Rules "factories engaged in manufacturing distinctly military supplies" were defined as military objectives. As the whole of the German industry was organised for the production of war material, he thought that the targets selected would come within the definition.
It not really hard to see where this whole discussion was going about unrestricted attacks, cracking moral, justifications and lawyering the definition of what fits into a factory manufacturing distinctly military supplies (the whole of the German industry, down to shoemakers) and fear of heavy retaliation. It is not very hard to see what these fine gentlemen were cooking in the pot - in November 1939, that is.
Now the real problem was not that, but the fact that this was a game at which two which could play, and the Germans at the time had a LOT more toys to play with.
You make it like you do not get the hypocrisy of Churchill about the Ruhr being a 'military deployment zone' which would give an excuse to attacks that 'would involve a heavy casualty roll among civilians, including women and children' a 'population which might be expected to crack under extensive air attack' but everybody else around the table clearly got it. Obviously nobody wanted to go straight on record about it, not even in documents classified for 70 years.
Certainly the THE SECRETARY OF STATE FOR FOREIGN AFFAIRS got the message in full:
'It was necessary, however, to consider the effect on the morale of the German people. He had been able to consult a number of authorities who had lived in close touch with the German people up to the outbreak of war, and their views were conflicting. All were agreed, however, that the breaking of the German morale would ultimately depend upon the success of our venture. If we attacked the Ruhr and failed, not only should we have let loose indiscriminate bombing, but we should have strengthened the German will and made easier the task of the German Government.'
OOPS, somebody failed to properly proof read (or simply did not care, since he was long dead by the time this would have been disclosed to public) left that politically incorrect word in the text which every one of these fine gentlemen were discussing with fine and elaborate words.
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